642-736 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS)

What is the purpose of looking for anomalous behavior on a WLAN infrastructure?

A. Identifying new attack tools
B. Auditing employee’s bandwidth usage
C. Identifying attacks using signature matching
D. Improving performance by load balancing

Answer: A

As of controller release v5.2, which two statements about wired guest access support are true?
(Choose two.)

A. It is not supported on the Cisco 2100 Series Controllers.
B. No more than three wired guest access LANs can be configured on a controller.
C. Layer 3 web authentication and passthrough are not supported.
D. Wired guest access cannot be configured in a dual-controller configuration that uses an anchor
controller and a foreign controller.
E. The wired guest access ports must be in the same Layer 2 network as the foreign controller.

Answer: A,E

The wireless client can roam faster on the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure when
which condition is met?

A. EAP-FAST is used for client authentication on the wireless network.
B. Cisco Centralized Key Management is used for Fast Secure Roaming.
C. QoS is being used on the WLAN to control which client packets get through the network faster.
D. RRM protocol is used between multiple APs that the client associates to while roaming.

Answer: B

Which option best describes an evil twin attack?

A. A rouge access point broadcasting a trusted SSID
B. A rogue access point broadcasting any SSID
C. A rouge ad-hoc with the SSID “Free WiFi”
D. A rouge access point spreading malware upon client connection

Answer: A

Which two configuration parameters does NAC OOB require on a SSID/WLAN? (Choose two.)

A. WMM enabled on the WLAN
B. Open authentication on the WLAN
C. AAA override configuration on the WLAN
D. 802.1x configuration on the WLAN

Answer: B,D


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3V00290A APDS Avaya Scopia Online Test

You are proposing videoconferencing for a customer with 15 large meeting rooms, 25 small
meeting rooms, and 4000 employees dispersed over three continents: North America, Asia, and
Europe. Thirty percent of the workforce will be video-enabled, and you are proposing XT5000s for
the large meeting rooms and XT4200 for the small meeting rooms. Using the normal 1:10 ratio for
simultaneous rooms and users, how many ports (including cascading) and Elite 5000 MCUs
should be included in the design?

A. 440 352p ports or 4 Elite 5230 MCUs
B. 280 352p ports or 2 Elite 5230 MCUs
C. 152 352p ports or 3 Elite 5115 MCUs
D. 140 352p ports or 4 Elite 5110 MCUs
E. 136 352p ports or 3 Elite 5110 MCUs

Answer: C


Your customer, Jay, is reviewing your proposal for Scopia® video conferencing. He notices that
within Scopia Management, there is a SIP Back-to-Back User Agent and an internal gatekeeper
that could be external. When would you tell him he would use an external gatekeeper instead of
an internal gatekeeper?

A. In order to work with an external Microsoft SQL database
B. When running Scopia Management (iView) on a Linux server
C. To support configurations with multiple cascaded Elite MCUs
D. To support Scopia Management (iView) redundancy

Answer: D


Your customer is concerned about the ease of use for the infrequent video collaboration user. You
explain that your solution includes Scopia’ Control. What is Scopia Control?

A. An iPad app for conference control.
B. An Android mobile device app for conference control.
C. An Android mobile device app for configuring the user’s virtual room.
D. An iPad app for configuring the user’s virtual room.

Answer: A

Scopia Control is an Apple iPad application for control of Avaya video conferencing systems. The
highly intuitive user interface virtually eliminates the learning curve for a video conferencing
system. The integrated conference room calendar and enterprise directory makes it easy to join
meetings and invite others. Room system control and meeting moderation are simple through the
iPad Multi-Touch user interface.
Reference: http://www.avaya.com/usa/product/avaya-scopia-xt-video-conferencing/

You are meeting with your Account Team and discussing a small SMB customer. You’re hesitant
to select the Scopia® SMB solution with the MCU embedded in the XT1200, because it has some
differences from a configuration with an Elite MCU and Scopia Management (iView). Select three
capabilities the SMB solution does not support that you would discuss with the Account Team.
(Choose 3)

A. Support for Scopia Mobile users
B. Support for internal Scopia Desktop Client users
C. Support recording and streaming of conferences
D. Support for encryption of conferences over 4
E. Support for external Scopia Desktop Client users
F. Support multiple concurrent conferences

Answer: D,E,F
Reference: http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/rv_solution_guide_8/soln_sg_deployment_smb_limits

For users who operate out of the office, Scopia® offers desktop client and mobile applications.
Your friend Oliver, another SE, calls to ask you about a statement in the Scopia marketing
materials that says that Scopia is the best meet-me client because it is more than an endpoint.
Although there are many reasons, what two would you want to tell Oliver about? (Choose 2)

A. Error resiliency for both the desktop and mobile clients uses SVC (scalable video coding) and
B. Users can download the presentation using the slider feature
C. User features such as chat, FECC (far end camera control), and raise hand
D. Best user experience with calendar integration and one tap to join
E. Simple and secure firewall traversal using HTTPS (hypertext transfer protocol secure)

Answer: D,E


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Two indicted for stealing 1B email addresses in historic breach

The Vietnamese defendants are accused of using stolen email addresses for a spamming operation

Two Vietnamese men have been indicted, with one pleading guilty, for hacking into eight U.S. email service providers and stealing 1 billion email addresses and other confidential information, resulting in what’s believed to be the largest data breach in U.S. history, the U.S. Department of Justice announced.

The attacks, running from February 2009 to June 2012, resulted in the largest data breach of names and email addresses “in the history of the Internet,” Assistant Attorney General Leslie Caldwell said in a statement. After stealing the email addresses, the defendants sent spam emails to tens of millions of users, generating US$2 million in sales, according to the DOJ.

Viet Quoc Nguyen, 28, of Vietnam, allegedly hacked into the email service providers, stealing proprietary marketing data containing more than 1 billion email addresses, the DOJ said. Nguyen, along with Giang Hoang Vu, 25, also of Vietnam, then allegedly used the data to send spam messages, the agency alleged.

The indictments of the two men were unsealed Thursday. On Feb. 5, Vu pleaded guilty in U.S. District Court for the Northern District of Georgia to conspiracy to commit computer fraud.

Vu was arrested by Dutch law enforcement in 2012 and extradited to the U.S. a year ago. He is scheduled to be sentenced on April 21. Nguyen remains at large.

In addition to the unsealing of the indictments, a federal grand jury returned an indictment this week against a Canadian citizen for conspiring to launder the proceeds obtained as a result of the massive data breach.

David-Manuel Santos Da Silva, 33, of Montreal, was indicted for conspiracy to commit money laundering for helping Nguyen and Vu to generate revenue from the spam emails and launder the proceeds.

Da Silva was co-owner of 21 Celsius, a Canadian corporation that ran e-commerce site Marketbay.com, according to court documents. Da Sliva allegedly entered into an affiliate marketing arrangement with Nguyen that allowed the defendants to generate revenue from the alleged data thefts.

Nguyen allegedly received a commission on sales generated from Internet traffic that he directed, from his spam email, to websites selling products.

Nguyen and Da Silva made approximately $2 million for the sale of products derived from Nguyen’s affiliate marketing activities between May 2009 and October 2011, the DOJ said.

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Flaw in popular Web analytics plug-in exposes WordPress sites to hacking

WordPress site owners using the WP-Slimstat plug-in installed should upgrade it to the latest version immediately in order to fix a critical vulnerability, security researchers warn.

WP-Slimstat, a Web analytics plug-in for WordPress, has been downloaded over 1.3 million times and is highly rated by users. The plug-in allows site owners to track returning visitors and registered users, monitor JavaScript events, detect intrusions, analyze email campaigns and more.

Researchers from Web security firm Sucuri found a vulnerability that stems from weak cryptographic key generation in WP-Slimstat versions 3.9.5 and lower. If attackers can determine the secret key used by the plug-in, they can launch blind SQL injection attacks that enable them to read sensitive information from the site’s database.
MORE ON NETWORK WORLD: Free security tools you should try

That sensitive information can include usernames, password hashes, and, in certain configurations, WordPress secret keys that if exposed, can lead to a total takeover of the affected sites, Sucuri senior vulnerability researcher Marc-Alexandre Montpas said in a blog post Tuesday.

The plug-in’s secret key is generated by running the MD5 hash algorithm over a timestamp that corresponds to the plug-in’s installation on the website. Guessing when the plug-in was installed might appear to be hard, but it’s not.

An attacker can determine the year when the site was created, which is likely the same year when the plug-in was installed, by looking at the Internet Archive or other sources online. Once that part of the timestamp is determined, there are 30 million possible values left for the rest of it.

Testing all those values and comparing the resulting signatures with signatures used on the site can be done in 10 minutes using most modern CPUs, Montpas said.

“This is a dangerous vulnerability, you should update all of your websites using this plugin as soon as possible,” the researcher said.

The WP-Slimstat developers released version 3.9.6 last week in order to address the issue.

“The security of our users’ data is our top priority, and for this reason we tightened our SQL queries and made our encryption key harder to guess,” they wrote in the plug-in’s changelog. “If you are using a caching plugin, please flush its cache so that the tracking code can be regenerated with the new key.”


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Sensor tech makes predicting the future easier to do

Internet of Things industrial applications designed to forecast failure gain adoption

LAS VEGAS – We no longer need seers, oracles and psychics to tell us about the future. The declining cost of sensor technology and the availability of cloud-based analytical platforms is making predictive analytics accessible to every industry and most products.

These technologies give insights into how products are performing. Sensors record vibration, temperature, pressure and voltage, among other conditions, and provide data for real-time analysis. Sensors can help lead to discovery of faulty parts in products weeks before they actually fail.

Initial deployments of sensors have been in large and expensive industrial platforms, such as electrical generation systems and jet engines. In time, sensors connected to analytical platforms will be found in nearly every product.

The belief is that this technology will make machinery and systems more reliable. Sensors and analytics will alert users and vendors to problems days, weeks and months before a problem becomes visible. This insight into performance will also significantly reduce unplanned failures.

“We will know more about when they are going to fail, and how they fail,” said Richard Soley, CEO of the Object Management Group, a nonprofit technology standards consortium.

Businesses will also benefit from learning how customers are using their products, which will shape how products are made, Soley said.

Predictive analytics capability in industrial applications is not a new concept. Big machinery has long used sensors. What is new is the convergence of three major trends that will make deployment ubiquitous, say people working in this area.

First, sensor technology is declining in price as it gets smaller and more efficient; second, wireless communication systems have become reliable and global; third, is that cloud-based platforms that can be used for analytics and development are emerging rapidly. Collectively, these trends underpin the Internet of Things.

At IBM’s big conference, InterConnect, this week, the University of South Carolina was showing off a sensor-equipped gear box on an Apache helicopter that is part of study for the U.S. Army. There were four sensors on the gear box collecting temperature and vibration data.

One of the big savings in the use of this technology, aside from predicting failure, is correctly planning maintenance. Many maintenance activities may be unnecessary, wasteful and can introduce new problems.

“If you can reduce improper maintenance processes and improve the identification of faulty maintenance, you can directly impact safety,” said Retired Maj. Gen. Lester Eisner, with South Carolina’s National Guard, who is deputy director of the university’s Office of Economic Engagement.

In another area, National Instruments has been working with utilities to deploy its sensor technology. Today, many utilities have employees who collect data directly off machines, which is something of a shotgun approach, said Stuart Gillen, principal marketing manager at the company and a speaker at the IBM conference.

All it takes is one or two “catches” – preventing a failure in a large system – to justify the cost of deploying technology that can take in all the data from these systems and provide a more targeted approach to maintaining them, Gillen said.

National Instruments is working with IBM and its recently launched Internet of Things capability, which is part of IBM’s Bluemix cloud platform. This platform gives developers the ability to create new ways of working with the machine data.

There is much optimism that this technology will reduce equipment failures. Having the ability to see a little further into the future and reducing the need to rely on the benefit of hard-learned hindsight is the goal. But no one is predicting that this technology will eliminate failure all together.

“There are a lot of variables” that can contribute to equipment failure, said Sky Matthews, the CTO of IBM’s Internet of Things effort, but this technology “can certainly dramatically reduce them.”

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600-210 Implementing Cisco Service Provider Mobility UMTS Networks (SPUMTS)

Which organization developed and maintains the Universal Mobile Telecommunications System?

A. 3GPP2

Answer: B


Which two services does GPRS support? (Choose two.)

C. Video Calling

Answer: A,B


Which part of the OSI model contains the Signalling Connection Control Part protocol?

A. Data link layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Application layer
E. Presentation layer

Answer: B


What two routing keys can be used to filter SS7 messages? (Choose two.)


Answer: A,B


In MGT-based routing, which option is the GT address format of the called party?

A. E.212
B. E.164
C. E.412
D. E.214
E. E.216

Answer: D


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600-501 Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability (NPIBA)

Which option best describes explicit routing?

A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. destination-based routing
C. link-state routing
D. Shortest Path First
E. static routes

Answer: A


What is the purpose of Address Resolution Protocol in an IP data network?

A. Given a known MAC address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant IP address.
B. Given a known IP address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant MAC address.
C. Given a known URL, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant IP address.
D. Given a known IP address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant URL.

Answer: B


Which factor limits the maximum number of IEEE 802.1Q VLANs to 4096?

A. the length of the VLAN ID field of the 802.1Q frame
B. the length of the Tag Protocol ID field of the 802.1Q frame
C. the size of the TCAM memory of the Layer 2 switch
D. the size of the VLAN table of the Layer 2 switch

Answer: A


Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct way to summarize these different routes into a single route?


Answer: C


What is the default administrative distance for a static route?

A. 0
B. 255
C. 1
D. 110
E. 254

Answer: C


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642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0

Which statement describes the major difference between PEAP and EAP-FAST client

A. EAP-FAST requires a backend AAA server, and PEAP does not.
B. EAP-FAST is a Cisco-only proprietary protocol, whereas PEAP is an industry-standard
C. PEAP requires a server-side certificate, while EAP-FAST does not require certificates.
D. PEAP authentication protocol requires a client certificate, and EAP-FAST requires a secure

Answer: C


Which one best describes the EAP Identity Request frame when a wireless client is connecting to
a Cisco WLC v7.0-based AP WLAN?

A. sourced from the Cisco ACS Server to the client
B. sourced from the client to the Cisco ACS Server
C. sourced from the WLC to the client
D. sourced from the client to the WLC
E. sourced from the AP to the client
F. sourced from the client to the AP

Answer: C


What are the four packet types that are used by EAP? (Choose four.)

A. EAP Type
B. EAP Request
C. EAP Identity
D. EAP Response
E. EAP Success
F. EAP Failure
G. EAP Authentication

Answer: B,D,E,F


When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the
client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?

B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate

Answer: C


Which EAP types are supported by MAC 10.7 for authentication to a Cisco Unified Wireless

A. LEAP and EAP-Fast only
B. EAP-TLS and PEAP only
C. LEAP, EAP-TLS, and PEAP only

Answer: D


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600-502 Developing with Cisco Network Programmability (NPDEV)

A stock brokerage firm requires that all trades are executed quickly with a minimal amount of delay
due to network latency.
Which software requirement is recommended as part of a business requirement?

A. The application shall process trades as soon as possible with no further delay.
B. The application should provide high-availability features to continue trading activities even in
case of a software or hardware failure.
C. The application shall maintain the state of all active network links in real time and prioritize
traffic flows that belong to trading activities on the links with lowest latency.
D. The application should set the latency attribute to zero on packets that belong to the a trading

Answer: C


You must develop an SDN application that meets these specifications. The solution must manage
devices through a centralized controller to configure access control lists. The solution will monitor
traffic at a packet level to determine which packets are coming from known rogue applications
and/or devices. Identified traffic will be used as the basis to create new ACLs to be deployed back
onto the network devices. The identification and provisioning steps should take no more than 100
Which three design options must you consider to develop an SDN application that meets these
specifications? (Choose three.)

A. choice of programming and scripting language
B. choice of service set
C. choice of transport protocol
D. choice of deployment model
E. use of security and TLS
F. hardware platforms involved

Answer: A,B,D


Which programming language and Cisco onePK Service Set is required for an application that
performs at the packet level?

A. Java with Utility Service Set
B. REST with Element Service Set
C. Ruby with Routing Service Set
D. Python with Routing Service Set
E. REST with Utility Service Set
F. C with Data Path Service Set
G. Java with Developer Service Set

Answer: F


An application that leverages the Cisco onePK Data Path Service Set requires that TCP frames
are inspected and discarded under a set of conditions. The sender is not informed of the discard.
Which action does this scenario describe?

A. bypass or offload
B. DSCP marking
C. drop
D. purge
E. L4 redirect

Answer: D


You must document that before your application applies any configuration changes to a device,
the application runs those changes through a set of predefined, automated consistency tests
called “ACT-CHECK10″. The application applies changes only after the test has completed without
Which statement about these requirements is true?

A. The system should test the configuration before applying it.
B. After applying the configuration changes the user should ping the device to ensure that
everything still works.
C. The system should run consistency checks prior to applying configuration changes.
D. Prior to applying the configuration changes to the device, the system shall run consistency test
ACT_CHECK10, and proceed to applying changes only if no errors and/or warnings are reported
by the test.
E. The system should call the function app.ACT_CHECK10(“config-changes.txt”) method and
capture the output. The system shall than go through the output to count the number of ERRORS
and WARNINGS reported by the test. If the total number of ERRORS and WARNINGS is equal to
0, the system shall proceed to run app.ApplyChanges(“config-changes.txt”).

Answer: D


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300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)


A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address, and RouterB, IP address Given the debug output on RouterA, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.

Answer: D,F


When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP
routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What
is the next thing that should be checked?

A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the
show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the
show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.

Answer: D


Refer to the exhibit.

How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network

A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets
to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of
last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.

Answer: D


Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced

B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport

Answer: D


Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building siteto-
site VPNs? (Choose three.)

A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration

Answer: A,B,D



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220-802 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (220-802)

A technician is creating a batch script that auto-assigns a particular drive share to a drive letter
upon login. Which of the following commands can accomplish this?


Answer: A
Reference: http://www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/enus/

An office of 25 computers is interested in employing a file server, network shares, and print server
functionality. Which of the following network setups would be BEST suited for this situation?

A. Ad-hoc
B. Workgroup
C. Domain
D. Token ring

Answer: C
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-au/windows-vista/what-is-the-difference-between-adomain-

Which of the following terms BEST describes the software or hardware used to manage virtual

A. Hypervisor
B. Cloud Server Manager
C. Supervisor
D. Virtual Disk Manager

Answer: A
Reference: http://www.datacenterknowledge.com/archives/2012/08/01/hypervisor-101-a-lookhypervisor-

A technician is required to change a setting for HKEY_Local_Machine. Which of the following
would the technician use to change this?

B. WEP setup

Answer: D
Reference: http://www.wikihow.com/Edit-the-Windows-Registry

Which of the following Control Panel utilities will allow a technician to change the associated file
type in a Windows XP machine?

A. Folder options
B. Administrator tools
C. Accessibility options
D. Regional and language options

Answer: A
Reference: http://pcsupport.about.com/od/fixtheproblem/ht/defprogramxp.htm


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Verizon to allow opt-out from mobile ‘supercookies’

An identifier on users’ phone creates cookies that can’t be deleted

Verizon will soon allow customers to opt out of having an identifier placed on their phones that had alarmed privacy advocates due to its ability to let third parties persistently track customers.

The identifier or customer code drew concerns primarily because it created so-called “supercookies” that could not be deleted by users. Verizon customers have had the ability to opt out of the company’s advertising programs, but not out of having that identifier placed on their devices.

Now, “we have begun working to expand the opt-out to include the identifier referred to as the UIDH [unique identifier header], and expect that to be available soon,” a Verizon spokeswoman said Friday via email. She added that “Verizon never shares customer information with third parties as part of our advertising program.”

The Verizon spokeswoman did not say when exactly the opt-out would become available, though she noted that customers can change their privacy choices on the MyVerizon website.

Privacy advocates like the Electronic Frontier Foundation had called on Verizon to shut down the identifier program, arguing that it violated users’ privacy.

AT&T had also at one point tested its own identifier system, which it later dropped amidst privacy concerns.

One advertising company that had been exploiting the identifier, discovered by computer scientist Jonathan Mayer, was Turn. The company tracked users across the web as they visited sites like Facebook, Twitter, Walmart and WebMD, Mayer wrote in a blog post earlier this month.

“The privacy impact also goes beyond individual mobile browsers,” he said, referring to the supercookie as a “zombie cookie.” “If a Verizon customer tethered with their phone, their notebook could get stuck with the zombie value,” he said.


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Gmail users urged to change passwords after apparent attack

Hackers compromised nearly 5M Gmail passwords

Security experts are urging Gmail users to change their passwords amid reports that hackers gained access to the credentials of 5 million users of the free email service. Some password combinations have been spotted on Russian cybercrime forums.

Peter Kruse, head of the eCrime unit at CSIS Security Group in Copenhagen, told Computerworld that most of the nearly 5 million stolen Gmail passwords are about three years old, but many are still legitimate and functioning.

He said that CSIS experts suspect that several hackers worked on an endpoint compromise to exploit vulnerable network protocols.

Google did not respond to a Computerworld request for comment but has told other news outlets that it has found no evidence that their systems have been compromised.

Google’s cloud-based email service is used by individuals as well as enterprises.

Russian media outlet RIA Novosti reported that hackers have stolen and published a database containing the Google account logins and passwords to a Bitcoin Security online forum.

The database reportedly contains 4.93 million Google accounts from English, Russian and Spanish users.

Kruse said the discovery of the hack comes just days after more than 4.6 million Russian-based Mail.ru accounts and 1.25 million Yandex e-mail boxes were reportedly compromised. Yandex is the largest Russian-based search engine.


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OpenDNS Servers : Increase internet speed using OpenDNS

Broadband is considered as high speed generating internet connection. You might have not noticed but even Broadband is not able to serve you great internet speed. This is due to downloads or heavy applications such as torrent. Do you guys know the reason behind these fluctuations in speed; it is due to DNS Servers, popularly known as Domain Name Servers. The DNS is provided by your ISP. While suing heavy files, most of us have to suffer the poor internet speed. But there is a solution to this issue. You can solve the flaw by using Public DNS servers such as OpenDNS servers.

Increase internet speed using OpenDNS
OpenDNS servers or Google DNS are public platforms that allow user to enjoy excellent Internet speed. You must know about DNS Benchmark, it is a tool that allows you to check the best channel or DNSserver IP that can help in improvising internet speed. Let us study OpenDNS Servers today
Taking a step-by-step approach, we will today discuss OpenDNS Servers and by the end of the topic, you will get to know all about Open DNS and its related concepts.
What is OpenDNS Servers?

The service of Open DNS provides network security and expands the array of DNS. It adds the features such as phishing protection and optional content filtering that help your system protect itself from malicious attacks. OpenDNS servers are available in both, free and premium packages for organizations or individuals. This helps in loading pages at much efficient speed and also blocks every channel for all kind of malicious pages. Other features that you can enjoy with OpenDNS servers are:

Domain Blocking
DNS Security
Typo Correction
Botnet Protection

OpenDNS Servers
For every individual that is using default DNS that is provided by the ISP have the provision to switch to OpenDNS server. Google DNS is also quite resourceful and you must give it a try as well. OpenDNS server IP blocks all faulty files that come along-with while downloading. Usually we see that besides using Broadband, we try hard to open a web page but it takes a while to open, this problem can be solved by using open DNS server IP. Actually Open DNS have a big pool of DNS cache that helps internet to perform better.

Consider the example:
Whenever you type any domain address in your browser such as www.bloggeroutline.com, a request is sent to the IP address of searched site and hence page opens at your system. Sometimes, due to low cache size, DNS of your site is not able to fetch the page link. This is the only reason for websites showing error and not getting displayed on request sometimes. Open DNS servers help you in overcoming such errors.
OpenDNS are considered as faster than other platforms as their servers are located at all vital locations, plus it serves larger cache size.
For individual users, OpenDNS IP is available and sufficient for routinely usage of data. You can use free packages as these are good enough for regular home users. Below mentioned is the current open DNS IP that you can use to change DNS settings:

Google DNS IP addresses
IPv4: and/or
IPv6: 2001:4860:4860::8888 and/or 2001:4860:4860::8844

How to Change DNS setting on Mac OS

Below mentioned are the steps that can help you in changing DNS settings on Mac, take a look:

Go to System Preferences
Click at Network Icon
Unlock the pane by entering password (if necessary)
Click on Advanced Button
Click at DNS Tab
Click at + button and add DNS servers
Click Apply and then OK

How to change DNS Setting in Windows Base System

By following these steps, you can change DNS settings and add new servers.
Go the Control Panel.
Click Network and Internet, then Network and Sharing Center, and click Change adapter settings.
Select the connection for which you want to configure DNS. For example: Local Area Connection or Wireless Network Connection,
right click on your choice and select Properties.
Select the Networking tab. Under This connection uses the following items, select Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IPv4) or
Internet Protocol Version 6 (TCP/IPv6) and then click Properties.
Click Advanced and select the DNS tab.
Click OK.

OpenDNS servers are best suited for today’s generation as all our routinely tasks highly depends on internet. It is hence the best medium to enjoy trouble-free usage of high performance internet.

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NTT tests 400Gbps optical technology for Internet backbone

One fiber in the core of the Internet could send the data equivalent of 600 DVDs in a second

NTT has successfully tested technology for optical Internet backbone connections that can transmit 400Gbps on a single wavelength.

Working with Fujitsu and NEC, the Japanese telecommunications giant verified the digital coherent optical transmission technology for distances of several thousand kilometers to 10,000 km. With it, a single wavelength of light can carry 400 Gbps, four times the capacity of previous systems. Each fiber can carry multiple wavelengths, and many fibers can be bundled into one cable.

The approach could more than double existing capacity to meet ever-increasing bandwidth demand, especially by heavy data users.

The technology could be used in the next generation of backbone links, which aggregate calls and data streams and send them over the high-capacity links that go across oceans and continents. The fiber in the network would stay the same, and only the equipment at either end would need to change.

While the current capacity on such links is up to 8Tbps (terabits per second) per fiber, the new technology would make a capacity of 24Tbps per fiber possible, according to NTT.

“As an example of the data size, 24 Tbps corresponds to sending information contained in 600 DVDs (4.7 GB per DVD) within a second,” an NTT spokesman wrote in an email. “The verification was done using algorithms which are ready to be implemented in CMOS circuits to show that these technologies are practically feasible.”

To compensate for distortions along the optical fiber, researchers from the consortium developed digital backward propagation signal processing with an optimized algorithm. The result of this and other research is that the amount of equipment required for transmissions over long distances can be reduced, meaning the network could consume less electricity.

“We are extremely excited to show this groundbreaking performance surpassing 100 Gbps coherent optical transmission systems,” Masahito Tomizawa, executive manager of consortium leader NTT Network Innovation Labs, wrote in an email. “This new technology maintains the stability and reliability of our current 100 Gbps solutions while at the same time dramatically improving performance.”

The consortium said it is taking steps toward commercialization of the technology on a global scale but would not say when that might happen.

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