Computer Technician Degrees Frequently Asked Questions

1) What Types of Computer Technician Degrees Exist and What are They Called?

Because the field of computer technology is ever evolving and changing, so too is the computer technician degree. With entries ranging from certificates to doctorate degrees, students can spend as little as a few weeks to eight years obtaining the degree that is right for them. To help narrow your search, we have included a wide range of degrees available in the area below.

Associate of Science in Computer Technology (A.S. Comp Tech): This undergraduate degree takes two years to earn and focuses on general aspects of computer technology. A good choice for the non-specified computer technician.

Associate in Information Technology (A.I.T.):
Information technology is a rapidly growing field and often involves the creation and management of databases, as well as other technical aspects. This degree is usually thought of as the starter to information technology.

Associate of Computer Engineering (A.S. Comp Eng):
A beginning entry level degree, this is for technicians who want to go into the entry level aspects of engineering.

Certification in Comp TIA A+:
The Comp TIA is one of the most recognized and utilized forms of computer technician certificates. It measures the skills learned and education of an entry level technology professional and even offers specialties in other areas such as security, server, and Linux.

Certification in Cisco:
Cisco remains one of the leaders in the computer technology field and is often utilized by many employers. The provider itself offers five different levels of certification from entry to architect.

Certification in Apple:
If looking to work with an employer that uses some, mostly, or all Mac computers, this is the certification for you. Computer technicians can choose to support the operating systems, servers, and much more.

Bachelor in Computer Science (B. Comp S.):
This four year undergraduate degree is another choice that covers general areas of science and computers. Several sub-specialties are also available.

Bachelor of Science in Computer Information Systems (B.S.C.I.S.):
Computer Information Systems is also another large area of computer technology. The bachelor’s is currently the most common offered undergraduate degree in the area.

Masters in Information Technology (M.I.T.):
The graduate degree takes six years to earn and focuses heavily on information systems. A benefit of the degree is that it is offered by many schools both online and in person.

Doctorate in Computer Science (Ph.D. Comp S.):
If looking to become a computer technician at the highest level, this degree may be for you. Taking six to eight years to complete, a Ph.D. is the only degree that can earn you the title of “Dr.”

Each degree can go onto have one or even several specialties. For example a Bachelor of Science in computers can be for networking, database administration, security, web development, and communications. Most schools are likely to offer several degrees and programs in computer technician, so it is important to do some digging before choosing the one that is right for you.

2) Where Can I Find Computer Technician Rankings?

Rankings for computer technician schools vary by what type of degree is being earned and at what level. For example, there are various standards for undergraduate degrees when being ranked by an entity such as “U.S. News and World Report.” They often use a cost versus quality of education but can overlook aspects such as demand for the degree in the private and public sectors. Be sure to identify the factors that are most important to you when looking through rankings, as those who do the ranking may not have the same priorities.

Graduate programs that offer a masters or doctorate degrees in computer technology are also capable of confusing potential students by offering online programs. Because a graduate degree is such a complex education to obtain, some feel that only an in-person program will do. However, with the growth of online schools, a degree obtained over the internet is becoming more and more accepted.

It is ultimately up to the student which degree or program they will choose by ranking schools according to their needs. Cost, time spent studying, appropriate learning facilities, and even student to teacher ratio can all be deciding factors when ranking a computer technician education.

3) Can I Transfer Computer Technician School Credits?

If you already have a college level degree or completed courses, transferring them to the appropriate school is of great importance. This can allow you to move along faster in a computer technician degree while saving hundreds to thousands of dollars. The trick is knowing what credits can transfer and where they can transfer to.

The easiest way to know the answer to the above is to speak with a counselor at the school in which you have earned the credits. It is their job to keep up to date with who is accepting what, what courses to transfer, and how many will transfer. For example, someone who wants to obtain a Bachelor of Science in Computer Technology from a university can begin at a junior or community college. Basics courses such as math, science, and history are taken at a fraction of the cost and then transferred to the university for the same degree given to those who took first and/or second year classes there.

Another option for transferring computer technician school credits is using one degree to supplement another. Someone with an associate’s degree in the sciences can apply that towards a bachelor in science or even vice versa and between specialties. If looking to get a masters or doctorate degree, having a four year undergraduate cannot only cut time spent studying by years but is sometimes a requirement. Generally, if one has an applicable bachelor’s degree, it takes two years to get a master’s or four years to get a doctorate depending on the degree or program.

Finally, the difference between nationally and regionally accredited computer technician schools can often be a point of contention. The U.S. Department of Education has a widely used database of accredited schools and agencies. When clicking on the search by institutional accrediting agency, note that there are two sections: national and regional. Know that just because a school is regionally accredited doesn’t mean that it is necessarily accredited nationally, which means that credits may or may not be transferred. Ultimately, the best way to avoid surprises when transferring credits is to contact the school beforehand so you can make an informed decision before taking a class.

4) What sorts of careers are common for students with this degree?

Upon completing a computer technician degree or program, there are literally hundreds of careers to choose from. Below, we have gathered just a few of them.

Computer Repair Technician: Ever had a computer freeze or break down on you? These are the professionals that fix them. The job usually requires an associate’s degree or certification.
Computer Technical Support Specialist: These techs work on a more full time basis and are often employed in the information technology side of a business. Support may come in the form of in person, over the phone, or over the web.

Network Support Technician:
The entire computer system is the focus of this tech. Servers, security, and more are often part of the job.

System Administrator:
They ensure the efficient operation of a computer system and often anticipate problems before they happen. Design, software, security, and more are involved in this career.

Computer Security Specialist:
Stopping hackers, viruses, etc. is the main focus of this career. They are responsible for installing the security software, monitoring for break-ins, and even identifying vulnerabilities in the system.

Web Developer:
Because even mom and pop stores have a website nowadays, web developers are more in demand. They plan and implement the entire website from homepage to the latest updates.

Database Administrators:
These computer technicians determine ways to store, organize, analyze, use, and present data. Switching from old to new databases or maintaining internet access are just some of the tasks assigned to them.

Computer Engineer:
They work on the more mechanical aspect of computers. Often having the ability to pull them apart and put them back together, computer engineers can also be tasked with designing and building a computer from the ground up.

Computer Systems Programmer:
Once a computer has been built, it must be programmed. Different from an engineer, the programmer actually writes software and programs it into the computer.

Computer Developer:
If a computer is built fine, the software is okay, but it needs to be updated, a developer may be tasked with this. The upgrading and cost control aspects of the job are often found.

As the technology changes, so too will the careers available. With Microsoft, Apple, and Linux constantly competing with each other, a computer technician who knows more than one can also move ahead of the others. Most employers require some form of education, typically an associate’s degree, for entry level positions. Those looking to start in a more managerial or developmental role can often be asked for a graduate degree. Certifications in one or many areas may also be asked of by a potential employer.

5) How Do I Become a Computer Technician?
If you want to be a computer technician, a degree is usually required at the associate level or higher. In order to obtain this or any undergraduate degree, students must apply to a postsecondary institution, college, or university. The application almost always requires a high school diploma or equivalent, entry level exams, or even a minimum grade point average.

Certification in a relevant computer technician area can also be an important step. One of the most common certifications is the Comp TIA A+. It requires the passing of the Essentials and Practical Application exams, each of which consist of 100 questions and take about 90 minutes each to complete. They recommend the candidate have a relevant education and 500 hours of hands on experience in the field or laboratory. Visit the site to get more information, such as pricing or to look at practice questions. You can also view information on the other ten certifications they offer.

The above is by no means the only certification offered in computer technology. Another popular choice is the Cisco Certification. Everyone from engineers to security administrators may be asked to obtain this certification. They offer them in the entry, associate, professional, expert, architect, and specialist level. Take the “Is it for you?” quiz to learn more. If you know which certification you need, check with the vendor itself.

If you know what kind of computer technician career you would like, research it a little more. Look over those who are hiring in the area you would like to work in and see what their requirements are. They may ask for anywhere from a certification for entry level positions to a doctorate degree for the managerial. If you currently are employed in an area of computer technology or have a department and can make a lateral move, check with your supervisor. The cost of an advanced education or relevant certification may be shouldered if not paid for entirely by them.

6) What is the Average Salary for a Computer Technician?
As with all careers, whether or not you work full or part time hugely affects pay. Those who work as a computer repair technician on a part time basis in a superstore, as a sub-contractor, or other area usually make $13.35 per hour according to Payscale. They are also eligible for overtime pay and bonuses for completing work on or ahead of schedules. Although many full time employees may not qualify for overtime pay, bonuses, health insurance, and other benefits can be factored in.

Another common career for someone with an education as a computer technician is network support technician. Their median pay ranges from $30,315 to $47,384 with the average at $38,849. Other similar careers include computer technical support specialist and system administrator with average annual salaries of $41,782 and $51,584, respectively. Factors such as experience, employer, and location are most likely to influence how much a career can pay.

The United States Bureau of Labor Statistics includes this sort of data when factoring in their average salaries for computer network, systems, and database administrators. The highest paying employers for administrators were management and computer system design companies with offerings a little higher than $70,000. Collegiate, elementary, and secondary schools were the lowest paying employers offering an average annual salary of about $56,500.

If looking to learn more about the highest paying computer technician jobs, check out security, engineer, or chief information officer. Often earning over six figures per year in average annual salary, they are required to have everything from a Ph.D. to the ability to hack into a well-guarded system. Security computer technicians can work exclusively for one company or hire themselves out as individuals to test the systems of those who hire them. Because computer engineers are involved in both the designing and building of a system, the time and knowledge they put into their work is invaluable. The chief information officer often runs the entire information technology department of a company and is tasked with the overall performance of the computer systems, which requires loads of education and experience, but can also pay very well.

Paying for college can be a daunting task, but don’t let that stop you from pursuing an education in a field you truly want to go into. The best course of action is to apply to many schools, even if they have an application fee, to see which ones you get into. After being accepted, fill out the FAFSA and any other financial aid forms asked of you. If turned in by deadline, the school will tell you how much tuition will cost out of pocket, which can make choosing one far easier.

Many new students can feel overwhelmed by the process, but the counseling and financial aid offices at just about every school are tasked with easing student’s fears and answering questions. If you need help filling out a form, contact them or visit the website associated with the form. Do not pay anyone for their help in filling out a FAFSA or other government form, as many professionals will do it for free.

Also use caution when and if taking out a student loan. Unlike a scholarship or grant, it is money that does have to be paid back. Once qualified, a student can receive money to be applied towards tuition, books, and other expenses. It does not have to be repaid until graduation and can often have a low interest rate. However, many are dependent upon graduation and can also require a minimum grade point average.

Computer Technician is the only resource dedicated to providing individuals interested in becoming a computer technician with unbiased information about different degree and school options as well as career, job and salary information. To that end, we provide an updated FAQ as well as the only comprehensive database of computer technician schools on the web.


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Fancy a wire-free laptop? Intel just showed one

Intel’s prototype can be wirelessly charged and connected to peripherals

Intel has shown what it calls the “world’s first no-wires” laptop, which has wireless charging and can connect to peripherals without cables.

The prototype laptop frees users from carrying a bulky power adapter, since the laptop recharges after being placed on a wireless charging table or surface.

“This is going to be the world’s first PC where you’d never need to connect a wire to it,” said Intel’s Kirk Skaugen, senior vice president and general manager for Intel’s Client Computing group. He showed the laptop during a speech this week at the Intel Developer Forum in Shenzhen, China.

Intel first talked about the concept of a wire-free laptop in June last year. The laptop is only shipping to software developers looking to write applications that take advantage of the wire-free features.

A number of laptop makers are supporting Intel’s vision of wire-free computers. For example, Lenovo wants to bring such features to its business laptops, Skaugen said.

The laptop shown was a hybrid in which the screen could be pulled out of the keyboard dock. Intel is looking to link laptops wirelessly to peripherals like monitors and external storage through the emerging WiGig technology. At data transfer speeds of 7G bps (bits per second), WiGig is much faster than Wi-Fi.

The wire-free prototype is also the first laptop based on Intel’s upcoming sixth-generation processor code-named Skylake, Skaugen said. PCs based on Skylake will start shipping in the second quarter this year, though it isn’t clear when laptops will start getting wireless charging and other features.

Intel’s wire-free PC isn’t practical today as wireless peripherals aren’t available and wireless charging surfaces for laptops haven’t been installed in restaurants, cafes and other spaces. Intel is talking to airlines, airports, restaurants and other institutions to provide wireless charging stations. It could be years before wireless monitors and external storage devices are widely available.

Another goal of the wire-free PC is to make computing convenient. For example, it will eliminate the need to remember passwords, Skaugen said. That points to the wire-free laptop supporting biometric authentication. Microsoft’s Windows 10 will support biometric login through a feature called Windows Hello.


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HP will buy Aruba to bolster its wireless networking business

Hewlett-Packard will purchase Aruba Networks to boost its wireless networking business, the companies announced Monday.

HP will offer $24.67 per share, giving Aruba a $3 billion value. The deal is worth $2.7 billion taking into account Aruba’s debt and cash.

By buying Aruba, HP will be able to help businesses beef up their wireless networks to meet the demands of an increasingly mobile workforce, the companies said.

This is HP’s first major acquisition since CEO Meg Whitman announced last year that the company would split into two. One half will focus on enterprise products and the other well sell printers and PCs.

Whitman recently said that HP can make acquisitions despite the company’s troubled finances. Last week HP lowered its financial outlook for fiscal 2015 after reporting that revenue and profit decreased in the first quarter. During that quarter, HP’s networking sales fell 11 percent, compared to the year-ago period.

Aruba’s sales, by contrast, are increasing. The company’s 2014 revenue totaled $729 million and was on track to break $1 billion by 2017, according to analysts. Rumors of the deal emerged last week.

The networking gear vendor will join the HP Enterprise group, with Aruba CEO Dominic Orr and CTO Keerti Melkote staying on to lead the new organization.

The boards of both companies have approved the deal, which is expected to close in the second half of HP’s fiscal year. U.S. government regulators and Aruba shareholders must also clear the acquisition.


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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to maintain key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A. In order to avoid risk
B. Complex metrics require fine-tuning
C. Risk reports need to be timely
D. Threats and vulnerabilities change over time

Answer: D

Explanation:
Threats and vulnerabilities change over time and KRI maintenance ensures that KRIs continue to
effectively capture these changes.
The risk environment is highly dynamic as the enterprise’s internal and external environments are
constantly changing. Therefore, the set of KRIs needs to be changed over time, so that they can
capture the changes in threat and vulnerability.

Answer: B is incorrect. While most key risk indicator (KRI) metrics need to be optimized in respect
to their sensitivity, the most important objective of KRI maintenance is to ensure that KRIs
continue to effectively capture the changes in threats and vulnerabilities over time. Hence the most
important reason is that because of change of threat and vulnerability overtime.

Answer: C is incorrect. Risk reporting timeliness is a business requirement, but is not a reason for
KRI maintenance.

Answer: A is incorrect. Risk avoidance is one possible risk response. Risk responses are based
on KRI reporting, but is not the reason for maintenance of KRIs.


QUESTION 2
You are the project manager of a HGT project that has recently finished the final compilation
process. The project customer has signed off on the project completion and you have to do few
administrative closure activities. In the project, there were several large risks that could have
wrecked the project but you and your project team found some new methods to resolve the risks
without affecting the project costs or project completion date. What should you do with the risk
responses that you have identified during the project’s monitoring and controlling process?

A. Include the responses in the project management plan.
B. Include the risk responses in the risk management plan.
C. Include the risk responses in the organization’s lessons learned database.
D. Nothing. The risk responses are included in the project’s risk register already.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The risk responses that do not exist up till then, should be included in the organization’s lessons
learned database so other project managers can use these responses in their project if relevant.

Answer: D is incorrect. If the new responses that were identified is only included in the project’s
risk register then it may not be shared with project managers working on some other project.

Answer: A is incorrect. The responses are not in the project management plan, but in the risk
response plan during the project and they’ll be entered into the organization’s lessons learned
database.

Answer: B is incorrect. The risk responses are included in the risk response plan, but after
completing the project, they should be entered into the organization’s lessons learned database.


QUESTION 3
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that
could save $100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST
describes this risk event?

A. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
B. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the
project.
C. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.

Answer: D

Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an opportunity, and the
appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is one of the
strategies to negate risks or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks
with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized.
Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more
talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit
response.

Answer: B is incorrect. To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk;
loss is accepted if it occurs. But as this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and
not accepted.

Answer: A and C are incorrect. Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative
risk events, and not in positive risk events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could
save $100,000, hence it is a positive risk event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.


QUESTION 4
You are the project manager of a large construction project. This project will last for 18 months
and will cost $750,000 to complete. You are working with your project team, experts, and
stakeholders to identify risks within the project before the project work begins. Management wants
to know why you have scheduled so many risk identification meetings throughout the project
rather than just initially during the project planning. What is the best reason for the duplicate risk
identification sessions?

A. The iterative meetings allow all stakeholders to participate in the risk identification processes
throughout the project phases.
B. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to discuss the risk events which have passed
the project and which did not happen.
C. The iterative meetings allow the project manager and the risk identification participants to
identify newly discovered risk events throughout the project.
D. The iterative meetings allow the project manager to communicate pending risks events during
project execution.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Risk identification is an iterative process because new risks may evolve or become known as the
project progresses through its life cycle.

Answer: D is incorrect. The primary reason for iterations of risk identification is to identify new risk
events.

Answer: B is incorrect. Risk identification focuses on discovering new risk events, not the events
which did not happen.

Answer: A is incorrect. Stakeholders are encouraged to participate in the risk identification
process, but this is not the best choice for the


QUESTION 5
You are the risk official in Bluewell Inc. You are supposed to prioritize several risks. A risk has a
rating for occurrence, severity, and detection as 4, 5, and 6, respectively. What Risk Priority
Number (RPN) you would give to it?

A. 120
B. 100
C. 15
D. 30

Answer: A

Explanation:
Steps involving in calculating risk priority number are as follows:
Identify potential failure effects
Identify potential causes
Establish links between each identified potential cause
Identify potential failure modes
Assess severity, occurrence and detection
Perform score assessments by using a scale of 1 -10 (low to high rating) to score these
assessments.
Compute the RPN for a particular failure mode as Severity multiplied by occurrence and detection.
RPN = Severity * Occurrence * Detection
Hence,
RPN = 4 * 5 * 6
= 120

Answer: C, D, and B are incorrect. These are not RPN for given values of severity, occurrence,
and detection.


 

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642-736 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS)


QUESTION 1
What is the purpose of looking for anomalous behavior on a WLAN infrastructure?

A. Identifying new attack tools
B. Auditing employee’s bandwidth usage
C. Identifying attacks using signature matching
D. Improving performance by load balancing

Answer: A


QUESTION 2
As of controller release v5.2, which two statements about wired guest access support are true?
(Choose two.)

A. It is not supported on the Cisco 2100 Series Controllers.
B. No more than three wired guest access LANs can be configured on a controller.
C. Layer 3 web authentication and passthrough are not supported.
D. Wired guest access cannot be configured in a dual-controller configuration that uses an anchor
controller and a foreign controller.
E. The wired guest access ports must be in the same Layer 2 network as the foreign controller.

Answer: A,E


QUESTION 3
The wireless client can roam faster on the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure when
which condition is met?

A. EAP-FAST is used for client authentication on the wireless network.
B. Cisco Centralized Key Management is used for Fast Secure Roaming.
C. QoS is being used on the WLAN to control which client packets get through the network faster.
D. RRM protocol is used between multiple APs that the client associates to while roaming.

Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Which option best describes an evil twin attack?

A. A rouge access point broadcasting a trusted SSID
B. A rogue access point broadcasting any SSID
C. A rouge ad-hoc with the SSID “Free WiFi”
D. A rouge access point spreading malware upon client connection

Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which two configuration parameters does NAC OOB require on a SSID/WLAN? (Choose two.)

A. WMM enabled on the WLAN
B. Open authentication on the WLAN
C. AAA override configuration on the WLAN
D. 802.1x configuration on the WLAN

Answer: B,D


 

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3V00290A APDS Avaya Scopia Online Test


QUESTION 1
You are proposing videoconferencing for a customer with 15 large meeting rooms, 25 small
meeting rooms, and 4000 employees dispersed over three continents: North America, Asia, and
Europe. Thirty percent of the workforce will be video-enabled, and you are proposing XT5000s for
the large meeting rooms and XT4200 for the small meeting rooms. Using the normal 1:10 ratio for
simultaneous rooms and users, how many ports (including cascading) and Elite 5000 MCUs
should be included in the design?

A. 440 352p ports or 4 Elite 5230 MCUs
B. 280 352p ports or 2 Elite 5230 MCUs
C. 152 352p ports or 3 Elite 5115 MCUs
D. 140 352p ports or 4 Elite 5110 MCUs
E. 136 352p ports or 3 Elite 5110 MCUs

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Your customer, Jay, is reviewing your proposal for Scopia® video conferencing. He notices that
within Scopia Management, there is a SIP Back-to-Back User Agent and an internal gatekeeper
that could be external. When would you tell him he would use an external gatekeeper instead of
an internal gatekeeper?

A. In order to work with an external Microsoft SQL database
B. When running Scopia Management (iView) on a Linux server
C. To support configurations with multiple cascaded Elite MCUs
D. To support Scopia Management (iView) redundancy

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Your customer is concerned about the ease of use for the infrequent video collaboration user. You
explain that your solution includes Scopia’ Control. What is Scopia Control?

A. An iPad app for conference control.
B. An Android mobile device app for conference control.
C. An Android mobile device app for configuring the user’s virtual room.
D. An iPad app for configuring the user’s virtual room.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Scopia Control is an Apple iPad application for control of Avaya video conferencing systems. The
highly intuitive user interface virtually eliminates the learning curve for a video conferencing
system. The integrated conference room calendar and enterprise directory makes it easy to join
meetings and invite others. Room system control and meeting moderation are simple through the
iPad Multi-Touch user interface.
Reference: http://www.avaya.com/usa/product/avaya-scopia-xt-video-conferencing/


QUESTION 4
You are meeting with your Account Team and discussing a small SMB customer. You’re hesitant
to select the Scopia® SMB solution with the MCU embedded in the XT1200, because it has some
differences from a configuration with an Elite MCU and Scopia Management (iView). Select three
capabilities the SMB solution does not support that you would discuss with the Account Team.
(Choose 3)

A. Support for Scopia Mobile users
B. Support for internal Scopia Desktop Client users
C. Support recording and streaming of conferences
D. Support for encryption of conferences over 4
E. Support for external Scopia Desktop Client users
F. Support multiple concurrent conferences

Answer: D,E,F
Reference: http://docs.radvision.com/bundle/rv_solution_guide_8/soln_sg_deployment_smb_limits


QUESTION 5
For users who operate out of the office, Scopia® offers desktop client and mobile applications.
Your friend Oliver, another SE, calls to ask you about a statement in the Scopia marketing
materials that says that Scopia is the best meet-me client because it is more than an endpoint.
Although there are many reasons, what two would you want to tell Oliver about? (Choose 2)

A. Error resiliency for both the desktop and mobile clients uses SVC (scalable video coding) and
Netsense
B. Users can download the presentation using the slider feature
C. User features such as chat, FECC (far end camera control), and raise hand
D. Best user experience with calendar integration and one tap to join
E. Simple and secure firewall traversal using HTTPS (hypertext transfer protocol secure)

Answer: D,E

Explanation:


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Two indicted for stealing 1B email addresses in historic breach

The Vietnamese defendants are accused of using stolen email addresses for a spamming operation

Two Vietnamese men have been indicted, with one pleading guilty, for hacking into eight U.S. email service providers and stealing 1 billion email addresses and other confidential information, resulting in what’s believed to be the largest data breach in U.S. history, the U.S. Department of Justice announced.

The attacks, running from February 2009 to June 2012, resulted in the largest data breach of names and email addresses “in the history of the Internet,” Assistant Attorney General Leslie Caldwell said in a statement. After stealing the email addresses, the defendants sent spam emails to tens of millions of users, generating US$2 million in sales, according to the DOJ.

Viet Quoc Nguyen, 28, of Vietnam, allegedly hacked into the email service providers, stealing proprietary marketing data containing more than 1 billion email addresses, the DOJ said. Nguyen, along with Giang Hoang Vu, 25, also of Vietnam, then allegedly used the data to send spam messages, the agency alleged.

The indictments of the two men were unsealed Thursday. On Feb. 5, Vu pleaded guilty in U.S. District Court for the Northern District of Georgia to conspiracy to commit computer fraud.

Vu was arrested by Dutch law enforcement in 2012 and extradited to the U.S. a year ago. He is scheduled to be sentenced on April 21. Nguyen remains at large.

In addition to the unsealing of the indictments, a federal grand jury returned an indictment this week against a Canadian citizen for conspiring to launder the proceeds obtained as a result of the massive data breach.

David-Manuel Santos Da Silva, 33, of Montreal, was indicted for conspiracy to commit money laundering for helping Nguyen and Vu to generate revenue from the spam emails and launder the proceeds.

Da Silva was co-owner of 21 Celsius, a Canadian corporation that ran e-commerce site Marketbay.com, according to court documents. Da Sliva allegedly entered into an affiliate marketing arrangement with Nguyen that allowed the defendants to generate revenue from the alleged data thefts.

Nguyen allegedly received a commission on sales generated from Internet traffic that he directed, from his spam email, to websites selling products.

Nguyen and Da Silva made approximately $2 million for the sale of products derived from Nguyen’s affiliate marketing activities between May 2009 and October 2011, the DOJ said.


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Flaw in popular Web analytics plug-in exposes WordPress sites to hacking

WordPress site owners using the WP-Slimstat plug-in installed should upgrade it to the latest version immediately in order to fix a critical vulnerability, security researchers warn.

WP-Slimstat, a Web analytics plug-in for WordPress, has been downloaded over 1.3 million times and is highly rated by users. The plug-in allows site owners to track returning visitors and registered users, monitor JavaScript events, detect intrusions, analyze email campaigns and more.

Researchers from Web security firm Sucuri found a vulnerability that stems from weak cryptographic key generation in WP-Slimstat versions 3.9.5 and lower. If attackers can determine the secret key used by the plug-in, they can launch blind SQL injection attacks that enable them to read sensitive information from the site’s database.
MORE ON NETWORK WORLD: Free security tools you should try

That sensitive information can include usernames, password hashes, and, in certain configurations, WordPress secret keys that if exposed, can lead to a total takeover of the affected sites, Sucuri senior vulnerability researcher Marc-Alexandre Montpas said in a blog post Tuesday.

The plug-in’s secret key is generated by running the MD5 hash algorithm over a timestamp that corresponds to the plug-in’s installation on the website. Guessing when the plug-in was installed might appear to be hard, but it’s not.

An attacker can determine the year when the site was created, which is likely the same year when the plug-in was installed, by looking at the Internet Archive or other sources online. Once that part of the timestamp is determined, there are 30 million possible values left for the rest of it.

Testing all those values and comparing the resulting signatures with signatures used on the site can be done in 10 minutes using most modern CPUs, Montpas said.

“This is a dangerous vulnerability, you should update all of your websites using this plugin as soon as possible,” the researcher said.

The WP-Slimstat developers released version 3.9.6 last week in order to address the issue.

“The security of our users’ data is our top priority, and for this reason we tightened our SQL queries and made our encryption key harder to guess,” they wrote in the plug-in’s changelog. “If you are using a caching plugin, please flush its cache so that the tracking code can be regenerated with the new key.”


 

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Sensor tech makes predicting the future easier to do

Internet of Things industrial applications designed to forecast failure gain adoption

LAS VEGAS – We no longer need seers, oracles and psychics to tell us about the future. The declining cost of sensor technology and the availability of cloud-based analytical platforms is making predictive analytics accessible to every industry and most products.

These technologies give insights into how products are performing. Sensors record vibration, temperature, pressure and voltage, among other conditions, and provide data for real-time analysis. Sensors can help lead to discovery of faulty parts in products weeks before they actually fail.

Initial deployments of sensors have been in large and expensive industrial platforms, such as electrical generation systems and jet engines. In time, sensors connected to analytical platforms will be found in nearly every product.

The belief is that this technology will make machinery and systems more reliable. Sensors and analytics will alert users and vendors to problems days, weeks and months before a problem becomes visible. This insight into performance will also significantly reduce unplanned failures.

“We will know more about when they are going to fail, and how they fail,” said Richard Soley, CEO of the Object Management Group, a nonprofit technology standards consortium.

Businesses will also benefit from learning how customers are using their products, which will shape how products are made, Soley said.

Predictive analytics capability in industrial applications is not a new concept. Big machinery has long used sensors. What is new is the convergence of three major trends that will make deployment ubiquitous, say people working in this area.

First, sensor technology is declining in price as it gets smaller and more efficient; second, wireless communication systems have become reliable and global; third, is that cloud-based platforms that can be used for analytics and development are emerging rapidly. Collectively, these trends underpin the Internet of Things.

At IBM’s big conference, InterConnect, this week, the University of South Carolina was showing off a sensor-equipped gear box on an Apache helicopter that is part of study for the U.S. Army. There were four sensors on the gear box collecting temperature and vibration data.

One of the big savings in the use of this technology, aside from predicting failure, is correctly planning maintenance. Many maintenance activities may be unnecessary, wasteful and can introduce new problems.

“If you can reduce improper maintenance processes and improve the identification of faulty maintenance, you can directly impact safety,” said Retired Maj. Gen. Lester Eisner, with South Carolina’s National Guard, who is deputy director of the university’s Office of Economic Engagement.

In another area, National Instruments has been working with utilities to deploy its sensor technology. Today, many utilities have employees who collect data directly off machines, which is something of a shotgun approach, said Stuart Gillen, principal marketing manager at the company and a speaker at the IBM conference.

All it takes is one or two “catches” – preventing a failure in a large system – to justify the cost of deploying technology that can take in all the data from these systems and provide a more targeted approach to maintaining them, Gillen said.

National Instruments is working with IBM and its recently launched Internet of Things capability, which is part of IBM’s Bluemix cloud platform. This platform gives developers the ability to create new ways of working with the machine data.

There is much optimism that this technology will reduce equipment failures. Having the ability to see a little further into the future and reducing the need to rely on the benefit of hard-learned hindsight is the goal. But no one is predicting that this technology will eliminate failure all together.

“There are a lot of variables” that can contribute to equipment failure, said Sky Matthews, the CTO of IBM’s Internet of Things effort, but this technology “can certainly dramatically reduce them.”


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600-210 Implementing Cisco Service Provider Mobility UMTS Networks (SPUMTS)


QUESTION 1
Which organization developed and maintains the Universal Mobile Telecommunications System?

A. 3GPP2
B. 3GPP
C. ITU
D. ANSI

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Which two services does GPRS support? (Choose two.)

A. MMS
B. SMS
C. Video Calling
D. EMM
E. ESM

Answer: A,B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which part of the OSI model contains the Signalling Connection Control Part protocol?

A. Data link layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Application layer
E. Presentation layer

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
What two routing keys can be used to filter SS7 messages? (Choose two.)

A. DPC
B. DPC [+SSN]
C. IMEI
D. MSISDN
E. IMEISV

Answer: A,B

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
In MGT-based routing, which option is the GT address format of the called party?

A. E.212
B. E.164
C. E.412
D. E.214
E. E.216

Answer: D

Explanation:


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600-501 Integrating Business Applications with Network Programmability (NPIBA)


QUESTION 1
Which option best describes explicit routing?

A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
B. destination-based routing
C. link-state routing
D. Shortest Path First
E. static routes

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
What is the purpose of Address Resolution Protocol in an IP data network?

A. Given a known MAC address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant IP address.
B. Given a known IP address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant MAC address.
C. Given a known URL, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant IP address.
D. Given a known IP address, Address Resolution Protocol discovers the relevant URL.

Answer: B

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which factor limits the maximum number of IEEE 802.1Q VLANs to 4096?

A. the length of the VLAN ID field of the 802.1Q frame
B. the length of the Tag Protocol ID field of the 802.1Q frame
C. the size of the TCAM memory of the Layer 2 switch
D. the size of the VLAN table of the Layer 2 switch

Answer: A

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct way to summarize these different routes into a single route?

A. 10.0.0.0/8
B. 10.10.0.0/16
C. 10.10.0.0/22
D. 10.10.3.0/22
E. 10.10.1.0/22

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
What is the default administrative distance for a static route?

A. 0
B. 255
C. 1
D. 110
E. 254

Answer: C

Explanation:


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642-737 Implementing Advanced Cisco Unified Wireless Security (IAUWS) v2.0


QUESTION 1
Which statement describes the major difference between PEAP and EAP-FAST client
authentication?

A. EAP-FAST requires a backend AAA server, and PEAP does not.
B. EAP-FAST is a Cisco-only proprietary protocol, whereas PEAP is an industry-standard
protocol.
C. PEAP requires a server-side certificate, while EAP-FAST does not require certificates.
D. PEAP authentication protocol requires a client certificate, and EAP-FAST requires a secure
password.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
Which one best describes the EAP Identity Request frame when a wireless client is connecting to
a Cisco WLC v7.0-based AP WLAN?

A. sourced from the Cisco ACS Server to the client
B. sourced from the client to the Cisco ACS Server
C. sourced from the WLC to the client
D. sourced from the client to the WLC
E. sourced from the AP to the client
F. sourced from the client to the AP

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
What are the four packet types that are used by EAP? (Choose four.)

A. EAP Type
B. EAP Request
C. EAP Identity
D. EAP Response
E. EAP Success
F. EAP Failure
G. EAP Authentication

Answer: B,D,E,F

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
When a supplicant and AAA server are configured to use PEAP, which mechanism is used by the
client to authenticate the AAA server in Phase One?

A. PMK
B. shared secret keys
C. digital certificate
D. PAC

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Which EAP types are supported by MAC 10.7 for authentication to a Cisco Unified Wireless
Network?

A. LEAP and EAP-Fast only
B. EAP-TLS and PEAP only
C. LEAP, EAP-TLS, and PEAP only
D. LEAP, EAP-FAST, EAP-TLS, and PEAP

Answer: D

Explanation:


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600-502 Developing with Cisco Network Programmability (NPDEV)


QUESTION 1
A stock brokerage firm requires that all trades are executed quickly with a minimal amount of delay
due to network latency.
Which software requirement is recommended as part of a business requirement?

A. The application shall process trades as soon as possible with no further delay.
B. The application should provide high-availability features to continue trading activities even in
case of a software or hardware failure.
C. The application shall maintain the state of all active network links in real time and prioritize
traffic flows that belong to trading activities on the links with lowest latency.
D. The application should set the latency attribute to zero on packets that belong to the a trading
action.

Answer: C

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
You must develop an SDN application that meets these specifications. The solution must manage
devices through a centralized controller to configure access control lists. The solution will monitor
traffic at a packet level to determine which packets are coming from known rogue applications
and/or devices. Identified traffic will be used as the basis to create new ACLs to be deployed back
onto the network devices. The identification and provisioning steps should take no more than 100
milliseconds.
Which three design options must you consider to develop an SDN application that meets these
specifications? (Choose three.)

A. choice of programming and scripting language
B. choice of service set
C. choice of transport protocol
D. choice of deployment model
E. use of security and TLS
F. hardware platforms involved

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Which programming language and Cisco onePK Service Set is required for an application that
performs at the packet level?

A. Java with Utility Service Set
B. REST with Element Service Set
C. Ruby with Routing Service Set
D. Python with Routing Service Set
E. REST with Utility Service Set
F. C with Data Path Service Set
G. Java with Developer Service Set

Answer: F

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
An application that leverages the Cisco onePK Data Path Service Set requires that TCP frames
are inspected and discarded under a set of conditions. The sender is not informed of the discard.
Which action does this scenario describe?

A. bypass or offload
B. DSCP marking
C. drop
D. purge
E. L4 redirect

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
You must document that before your application applies any configuration changes to a device,
the application runs those changes through a set of predefined, automated consistency tests
called “ACT-CHECK10″. The application applies changes only after the test has completed without
any ERRORS or WARNINGS.
Which statement about these requirements is true?

A. The system should test the configuration before applying it.
B. After applying the configuration changes the user should ping the device to ensure that
everything still works.
C. The system should run consistency checks prior to applying configuration changes.
D. Prior to applying the configuration changes to the device, the system shall run consistency test
ACT_CHECK10, and proceed to applying changes only if no errors and/or warnings are reported
by the test.
E. The system should call the function app.ACT_CHECK10(“config-changes.txt”) method and
capture the output. The system shall than go through the output to count the number of ERRORS
and WARNINGS reported by the test. If the total number of ERRORS and WARNINGS is equal to
0, the system shall proceed to run app.ApplyChanges(“config-changes.txt”).

Answer: D

Explanation:


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300-135 Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks (TSHOOT)


QUESTION 1
Exhibit:

A network administrator is troubleshooting an EIGRP connection between RouterA, IP address
10.1.2.1, and RouterB, IP address 10.1.2.2. Given the debug output on RouterA, which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched autonomous system numbers.
B. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched hello timers.
C. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched authentication parameters.
D. RouterA received a hello packet with mismatched metric-calculation mechanisms.
E. RouterA will form an adjacency with RouterB.
F. RouterA will not form an adjacency with RouterB.

Answer: D,F

Explanation:


QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP
routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What
is the next thing that should be checked?

A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the
show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the
show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default-network
(0.0.0.0)?

A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets
to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for
failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of
last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 4
Which IPsec mode will encrypt a GRE tunnel to provide multiprotocol support and reduced
overhead?

A. 3DES
B. multipoint GRE
C. tunnel
D. transport

Answer: D

Explanation:


QUESTION 5
Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building siteto-
site VPNs? (Choose three.)

A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration

Answer: A,B,D

Explanation:


 

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220-802 CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (220-802)


QUESTION 1
A technician is creating a batch script that auto-assigns a particular drive share to a drive letter
upon login. Which of the following commands can accomplish this?

A. NET USE
B. PING
C. XCOPY
D. IPCONFIG

Answer: A
Reference: http://www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/enus/
net_use.mspx?mfr=true


QUESTION 2
An office of 25 computers is interested in employing a file server, network shares, and print server
functionality. Which of the following network setups would be BEST suited for this situation?

A. Ad-hoc
B. Workgroup
C. Domain
D. Token ring

Answer: C
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-au/windows-vista/what-is-the-difference-between-adomain-
and-a-workgroup


QUESTION 3
Which of the following terms BEST describes the software or hardware used to manage virtual
machines?

A. Hypervisor
B. Cloud Server Manager
C. Supervisor
D. Virtual Disk Manager

Answer: A
Reference: http://www.datacenterknowledge.com/archives/2012/08/01/hypervisor-101-a-lookhypervisor-
market/


QUESTION 4
A technician is required to change a setting for HKEY_Local_Machine. Which of the following
would the technician use to change this?

A. BCEDIT
B. WEP setup
C. MSCONFIG
D. REGEDIT

Answer: D
Reference: http://www.wikihow.com/Edit-the-Windows-Registry


QUESTION 5
Which of the following Control Panel utilities will allow a technician to change the associated file
type in a Windows XP machine?

A. Folder options
B. Administrator tools
C. Accessibility options
D. Regional and language options

Answer: A
Reference: http://pcsupport.about.com/od/fixtheproblem/ht/defprogramxp.htm


 

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